I retired in January 2016. I had both Traditional and Roth 401(k) elements within the 401(k) totals because my former employer instituted the Roth option only several years ago, long after starting its Traditional 401(k) plan. My first RMD is due in 2016. The IRA fiduciary (Principal) informed me of the RMD amount due for 2016. I queried the fiduciary as to whether this sum was based only on the Traditional 401(k) portion of my account or whether it was based on the total account balance including the Roth element of the (401(k). The fiduciary responded that the RMD is based on the entire account balance, including the Roth element. On the face of the matter, this does not seem correct. I thought the Roth aspect of 401(k)s and IRAs eliminates the need for RMDs.
FYI, I asked Vanguard about whether they include the Roth IRAs I have with them, along with Traditional IRAs, in calculating the RMD. They told me at the Roth IRAs are excluded from the RMD calculation. USAA said the same thing.
Question: Is the basis for calculating RMDs different for 401(k) plans as contrasted with the basis for IRAs with respect to including or not including Roth sums?
Thank you. Douglas