Need some guidance and refresher on how basis works. Have a client that has a $1 million dollar IRA. This is the only IRA he has. He is never going to need the money, other than for his annual RMD, and his accountant recommended doing IRA to Roth conversions. Although I see how this benefits the clients family, but causes a tax liability him, can someone refresh me on what happens and what the numbers look like if he converts $100,000 per year over the next 10 years? Also, his accountant is telling him he can convert his annual RMD without basis. Have not heard of this rule ever. Any review and information you can give me is greatly appreciated. Thank you in advance.