Question: Hoping you might be able to offer some guidance. We have a client who has two IRA accounts. The client is 80 years of age. He wants to convert the full amount in one of his IRA accounts to a Roth. The IRS says that distributions from IRA accounts are treated as satisfying the RMD first, so we need to take the RMD before we process the conversion. My questions are: 1.) The client has plenty of money in IRA #2 to satisfy the RMD for both IRA accounts. I presume that doesn't matter and we still need to take the RMD before we convert? 2.) Is the RMD that must be satisfied ONLY the RMD for IRA #1 that we plan to convert to a Roth, or is the RMD that must be satisfied the aggregate of both IRA accounts that must be met before we convert IRA #1 to a Roth? Thank you. Jamie Read More